Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 19.06.2025 02:29
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Why is the US going after Canada after all? What is the reason for all this hostility?
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Why is Tiananmen Square censored?
You'll usually find your answer there.